tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post8405724614245835154..comments2024-01-16T02:13:31.190-08:00Comments on What Does the Bible Say? Conundrums & Controversy: A Timeline of the 70th Week of DanielConniehttp://www.blogger.com/profile/16624728134929059941noreply@blogger.comBlogger16125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-5380087799231777032012-04-08T17:12:42.205-07:002012-04-08T17:12:42.205-07:00With the first point, I was trying to convey (rath...With the first point, I was trying to convey (rather poorly) that I think it is possible to utilize the 360 day year length to find the distance from the start of the 1st week to the end of the 69th week. No matter how it's calculated, we know the prophecy of the first 69 weeks is true, so that is the important thing.Prophecy Proof Insightshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08757440848152622108noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-69475946318824952542012-04-08T17:11:28.885-07:002012-04-08T17:11:28.885-07:00This comment has been removed by the author.Prophecy Proof Insightshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08757440848152622108noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-83107359550952675962012-04-08T16:57:39.910-07:002012-04-08T16:57:39.910-07:00To the first comment, I'm a little confused as...To the first comment, I'm a little confused as to what point you are trying to make. What exactly am I adding to 444 to get to 33 AD? Are you saying that we should use 360 days and then divide by 365 to get the 476 years and add that to 444 and therefore it works? I had not heard it was 444, in my research I was seeing 445 as the year, which seems to give validity to my point that nobody seems to know for certain. I was under the impression that you are supposed to subtract a year not add it to account for the fact that there is no year 0. For instance 1 BC to AD 1 is only 1 year, not 3. You'll have to elaborate on that. I'm not picking up on what you are trying to communicate to me.<br /><br />Please do have a go at it. Maybe you can find a way to reconcile it for me, because so far I can't find a way around what I'm seeing. I do often go to the Hebrew and Greek just for definitions, but I am of the opinion that God wants us to understand it without having to do that, as few people have that ability. I certainly don't know tenses to be able to discern that. I figure if He wanted it to be future tense, He would have used that in English too. Maybe I'm naive in that respect.Conniehttps://www.blogger.com/profile/16624728134929059941noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-39865153238748549832012-04-08T16:29:19.865-07:002012-04-08T16:29:19.865-07:00If the start date 444 BC is used and if you add a ...If the start date 444 BC is used and if you add a year to account for the fact that there is not a year 0, you will get to 33 ADProphecy Proof Insightshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08757440848152622108noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-54004525632132866452012-04-08T16:24:33.230-07:002012-04-08T16:24:33.230-07:00I've tend to view the destruction of Babylon t...I've tend to view the destruction of Babylon the Great as a single event through the years, but I should try to see if I can find some distinction in the chapters concerning its downfall/destruction for a possible two event scenario. <br /><br />I've read one person say that the announcement in Revelation 14:8 could be a case of prophetic perfect tense (a sort of technique used by people of the time period), which is to predict something in the future that is so assured that it is described in the past tense. Some people say this technique was used a lot in the Bible. Just throwing this out there...Prophecy Proof Insightshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08757440848152622108noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-70120444383298880752012-04-08T16:23:17.265-07:002012-04-08T16:23:17.265-07:00This comment has been removed by the author.Prophecy Proof Insightshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08757440848152622108noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-50793698828119554182012-04-08T14:09:21.486-07:002012-04-08T14:09:21.486-07:00I know there is someone who has supposedly calcula...I know there is someone who has supposedly calculated that from the decree given until Palm Sunday that there was the exact number of days, but seeing as the BC dates cannot be proven to be absolutely precise given the changes in the calendars made (like when they went Pope Gregory adjusted the calendar), the way monarchies overlapped way back then, and all the other things that have happened in the millennia since then, I would hesitate to put that forth as an absolute fact, although a theory worthy of mention. Also nobody can agree to exactly when Christ was born, so that end of the timeline is also suspect as to its accuracy. In all honesty we can only say that approximately 483 years passed between the decree and Christ. He was the only Messiah to show up around that time frame, so it still shows that He was the Messiah. Given that the temple was finished before the 49 years, it wouldn't bother me to find out that Christ came any time during the 69th week, not necessarily at the end of it. He still would have fallen in that 69th seven, as there was a seven year period in which he could come and be in it. That would mean he could come anytime from the 476th year to the 483rd year. Maybe I'm completely wrong, but the 46 years, and the 1290 days tell me that God doesn't hold everything to an exact 2520 day week for these things to qualify as being in a seven year period. <br /><br />You are right that I see a downfall first and then the complete annihilation. The only reason I can give for this is that in Rev. 14, the angel announces that Babylon has fallen before the rapture occurs, [which I put at 14:14-16 (which is also at the last trump)], but the complete annihilation occurs in Rev. 16:19 at the last vial. Unless Babylon changes geographical identities between the two events, and both are annihilated completely, I saw no other way of interpreting this, as these two events are separated by probably at least a couple of weeks, unless the destruction is an ongoing thing that begins in chapter 14 and ends in chapter 16, which may be a possibility. I quite honestly can't explain it other than to say that the Scriptures say that there are two events (the way I read it), so I accept that and try to deal with it as best as I can from the Scriptures. In the O.T. passages I see two types of things happening. It speaks of Babylon being overrun by the Medes and armies from the north, and people being killed by the sword, etc. which I would put these things as a description of what happens at the first event or fall, but then the same passages describe a complete destruction, which I see as an annihilation of the Sodom and Gomorrah type event, either by God's sending down fire from heaven or possibly a nuclear holocaust caused by the cronies of antichrist, as described in Rev. 17. It does say that God puts it in their heart to do it for His purposes. It seems that there are two types of falling being described in the O.T. passages. One seems to involve people against people, face to face, with plundering, killing, ravaging, pillaging, etc., and the other seems to indicate a nuclear holocaust type of thing where the land is completely laid waste by fire and rendered uninhabitable. If you have a more rational explanation for these two different announcements about Babylon in Revelation, I am all ears and open to suggestion, because I've wracked my brain for years over this problem.Conniehttps://www.blogger.com/profile/16624728134929059941noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-25729943989837778722012-04-08T14:07:43.704-07:002012-04-08T14:07:43.704-07:00This will take a few posts. So keep scrolling dow...This will take a few posts. So keep scrolling down.<br /><br />You do ask the hard questions, don't you. As for calculating the 69 weeks, I have written in my blog about the prophetic year of 360 days and the whole method of calculation that scholars have used, but I don't know that I believe that the seven years have to be 2520 days each. I find it interesting that the way the 483 years are made to fit into 445 B.C. to A.D. 31 (or so) is to take 360 days a year, multiply it by 7 years then by 69, to get the number of days, then divide by the real length of a year 365 to come up with 476 years which is the amount of time between 445 B.C. and A.D. 31. So we just undid the whole 360 day per year thing, didn't we? We converted it to a 365 day year, and what happens when we do that is that eventually the seven year periods end up starting at a completely different time of year by the time you get to the end, as the earth spins on a 365 ¼ year so the months keep getting moved forward. That is why God built in an adjustment for that very problem. The first month of the year (Aviv or Nissan) was not to be declared until the barley harvest was ready for harvest. If it wasn't ready they had to add in another month. It happened every few years in a random way, but in the long run it kept adjusting the year back to the correct season. I believe that before the Flood, the year was exactly twelve months of 30 days each, but when the Flood occurred the earth's size changed and it is indicated that the orbit did also, making a different length of year. The reason I say it is indicated that the orbit changed is that it is indicated in Scripture that the earth will be moved to another orbit after the Day of the Lord (or during it due to the events occurring) which would put it back to a 360 day year. The loss during the Flood of the vapor canopy to protect the earth might be the reason God moved the orbit further away. As mentioned above, the temple and walls didn't take 49 years, the Bible says it took 46 years. And in Daniel it is indicated that the second half of the 70th week is 1290 days for the prophecies in Chapter 9 to be fulfilled, so God must allow for it to not have to be 2520 days exactly when He refers to a seven year week. Note that a 365 day seven year period would easily allow for the extra 30 days in the second half to fall within a seven year week. It is our assumption that a prophetic year is 360 days. I don't know of any place where God told us that this is definitely how we are to interpret it. We are not the final authority as to what is, He is, so maybe we should not assume He means 360 day years. After all He did have them adjust the years occasionally by adding a month so that by the time a Jubilee year rolled around, they literally had observed seven 7 year periods of 365 days, not 49 years of 360 days each.Conniehttps://www.blogger.com/profile/16624728134929059941noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-90548433127628773722012-04-08T09:24:02.574-07:002012-04-08T09:24:02.574-07:00Your explanation of how you see the Millennium cla...Your explanation of how you see the Millennium clarifies things a lot. The word “day” (Yom) in the Bible does not always mean a fixed time period depending on what kind of “day” it is. For instance, the length of the Day (Yom) of the Lord isn’t the same length as a typical day, yet the same word (Yom) is used. As you said, the length of a day isn’t always the same even in its normal use since it was based on sunrise and sunset, which changes each day. <br /><br />The impression I have is that you see the seventieth week of Daniel as potentially being as long as 2550 days (1260 plus or minus a few days + 1290) instead of what people typically see as 2520 days. With regards to the other 69 weeks, do you see those weeks being 2520 days long? The reason I ask is that I think the 69 week prophecy only works when you use 2520 days instead of 2550 days. However, I think you can make a case for the 70th week being around 2550 days since you do have Daniel 12 talk specifically about 1290 days. <br /><br />I read some of your articles about when you think Babylon the Great will be destroyed last night trying to get a sense of how you view that. My impression is that you envision two separate events: 1) Babylon’s fall from power, but not necessarily destroyed before the Rapture 2) Babylon’s annihilation by the wrath of God in the seventh vial judgment. My impression also is that you see Revelation 17 applying to the fall of Babylon from power while Revelation 18 applying to the annihilation by the wrath of God. Is this correct? and how would you separate Isaiah 13, Jeremiah 50, and Jeremiah 51 into these two categories? <br /><br />I’ll spend some more time examining what you’ve written. Thanks for taking the time to respond to my questions.Prophecy Proof Insightshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08757440848152622108noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-39366733800895626842012-04-08T07:16:22.737-07:002012-04-08T07:16:22.737-07:00I think the Day of the Lord is not a time period d...I think the Day of the Lord is not a time period defined by an exact amount of years down to the day, but rather encompasses a series of events. Just as a day in God's eyes is defined not by a clock but by the sun, I think the Day of the Lord is defined by the events and not held to a certain number of days. Just as cleaning the temple before the Sabbath began well before sunset, or the lighting of the Sabbath candles occur before the Sabbath actually begins, but both were/are considered a vital part of the Sabbath ritual, I see wrath of God or cleansing of the earth as part of the Sabbath millennium ritual, therefore falling under the heading of the Day of the Lord. Should God not want to start the clock on the millennium until the temple is reconsecrated, I don't see the Day of the Lord constrained to that same time. Especially given that in the O.T. He gives events of the Day of the Lord that occur within both the trumpets and vial judgments. I think God has shown us that He does not always classify a phrase by an exact number (such as not keeping a 24 hour day), so we do not have to force Him into that position either. Nor do I see it limited to the short 30 days when the vials of God's wrath are poured out. As to whether the trumpets fall under the heading, I'm inclined to say that they do fall under the heading for two reasons even though God's wrath has not begun. First, some of the events in the trumpets are mentioned as part of the Day of the Lord in the O.T., and second, the redemption was complete with the breaking of the last seal so technically the Day of the Lord has begun in legal terms if you consider it the start of a new regime, although in physical terms it is a different matter. I may close a deal on a house, but if I have agreed to let the previous owner live there another month, I don't take possession yet even though I am the owner. In that situation I would hold off on cleaning the house and celebrating until I actually take physical possession. As said, the period between the 7th seal and 7th trumpet is a peculiar phase in that the redemption is complete at the breaking of the last seal, but the conditions of that seal are not yet finished. It is that time period between the closing of the deal and getting the previous owner out so I can move in. I honestly don't know how to categorize it, as it falls between the tribulation and God's wrath. What would you call the comparison situation of closing on a house? I honestly don't know so am not going to get dogmatic as to whether the term Day of the Lord starts at the 7th seal or the 7th trumpet, however God's wrath does seem to start at the 7th trumpet. I just accept what He says is going to happen. Does that make sense?<br /><br />As an added note, I know pre-wrath sees the people on the sea of glass as the raptured. I see them as the fulfillment of the statement to the 5th seal martyrs that they must wait for the rest of the martyrs to arrive. We know there will be martyrdom unlike the world has ever seen before. I think that shows us how great the multitude of martyred is. I don't think that they are the raptured. I see the group on the sea of glass in chapter 15 as the ones being raptured after the rapture occurs in chapter 14.Conniehttps://www.blogger.com/profile/16624728134929059941noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-5287668892614140182012-04-08T07:15:28.284-07:002012-04-08T07:15:28.284-07:00Would you believe I read the word as nuance and ne...Would you believe I read the word as nuance and never saw that it was nuisance? I guess my mind made the appropriate change based on context. <br />Yes, you have it right about the Day of the Lord depending upon the definition. <br /><br />I think where the problem is coming in for you is that you might have a definition that is different from mine. That always seems to be where people's understanding falls apart. Just as neither of us sees the tribulation as being the entire 7 years, we can't talk turkey with pre-trib because our definitions are different. When it comes to the millennium, how is it defined by Scripture? As far as I can see, we are told that it is the time when Christ will reign. So do you define that by starting at the moment He is crowned King, or when the temple is reconsecrated? If you define it by His crowning, which I believe it the way monarchies are tallied, then it begins the moment that the kingdoms of the world become His. That occurs at the sounding of the last trump, which is the beginning of God's wrath according to Rev. 11:15-18. So I do see the millennium as beginning at that time and those events falling into it, so they are part of the 1000 year reign of Christ. That would make all of them also part of the Day of the Lord, as I see the Day of the Lord as being the Sabbath reign of Christ. <br /><br />What if God does not start the clock ticking on the millennium until the temple is reconsecrated? Well, I don't see the Day of the Lord moniker as having to be a perfectly synonymous with either the millennium or God's wrath, and being constrained to a literal 1000 years down to the day the way the word millennium can be (even though the Lord said a day is as a thousand years), or to merely that period of time of punishment on the world (as most people apply the phrase). A day starts at sunset and ends at sunset. That changes from day to day, so a day does not have to be exactly 24 hours in God's eyes. Actually a day is more than 24 hours when you consider that there are 24 times zones and that the last time zone doesn't even begin the day until the first time zone is ending it and that the last time zone doesn't end it until the first time zone is ready to start the third day. So what is the real definition of a day? In Daniel when God said there would be 7 sevens and 62 sevens the division was given to show the time period of the rebuilding of the temple and walls and then the rest of the time until Christ's return, yet it took only 46 years to rebuild the temple not 49. Forty-six years still qualified as 7 sevens, not 6 sevens. It wasn't exact to the day, but it fell within the time frame. There are times when I don't think God demands that things be held to an exact amount. I don't think Daniel's 70th week has to be two periods of 1260 days. (Actually I think the second half goes to the 1290 days according to Dan.12 and the definition given in Dan. 9.) God did not define the 70th week as two periods of 1260 days. He only defined the second half to exact time periods. I think the first half could be slightly more or less than 1260 days as long as it falls within the 7 year time frame. When God is not specific, I don't like to pigeonhole Him into a strict amount on something.Conniehttps://www.blogger.com/profile/16624728134929059941noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-38246349607055775472012-04-07T23:56:05.517-07:002012-04-07T23:56:05.517-07:00I meant to write "nuance" instead of &qu...I meant to write "nuance" instead of "nuisance". My spell check gave me the wrong word. Sorry about that.<br /><br />I want to rephrase my question about the length of the Day of the Lord with respective to the Millennium. In total, do you see a Day of the Lord period that is greater than 1000 years (when accounting for the wrath of God, sheep goat judgment, and the 45 days)? I’ve seen another prophecy writer talk about a Day of the Lord period greater than 1000 years, but it’s something which is a little bit difficult for me to grasp as a day is equated to 1000 years in 2 Peter 3:8 and not 1000 years + X # of days. A Day of the Lord period which is greater than 1000 years does not seem to meet 2 Peter 3:8's way of defining it.<br /><br />Thanks for your timeProphecy Proof Insightshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08757440848152622108noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-1709854447086111812012-04-07T23:35:06.206-07:002012-04-07T23:35:06.206-07:00Things are making more sense, but I don't thin...Things are making more sense, but I don't think I have a full level of understanding yet.<br /><br />Your definition of the Day of the Lord is unique and has a lot of nuisance to it. I’ve read over your answer multiple times. If I understand you correctly, you have the Day of the Lord (when defined as the wrath of God) beginning at 7th trumpet, but the Day of the Lord (when defined as the redemption of the earth) beginning at the breaking of the 7th seal. Trumpets 1-6 are the filler, but they are part of the Day of the Lord if defined as the redemption of Earth (and not if defined by the wrath of God). Correct?<br /><br />You mentioned that “the Day of the Lord is not just His wrath, it is the entire Sabbath millennium”. Revelation 20 notes that Christ reigns for 1000 years. A question I have for you now is do you see the wrath of God + Millennium equal to 1000 years + X # of days (so that the total time period is greater than 1000 years) or do you see the X # of days coming out of the 1000 years? I’ve seen another prophecy writer talk about a time period greater than 1000 years, but it’s something which is a little bit difficult for me to grasp as a day is equated to 1000 years in 2 Peter 3:8 and not 1000 years + X # of days.<br /><br />I’m rereading things a lot because I’m trying to get a firmer grasp of how you view things. Unfortunately, I was never the best at reading comprehension even when I was in school. I’m more of an audio and visual learner, so I’ve been trying to take some of what you’ve written and create a visual chart. I think your view of how events will play out has a chance to be superior to the Pre-Wrath view. I just need to get as complete of understanding of how you view things to make that determination.Prophecy Proof Insightshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08757440848152622108noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-32097213418017096822012-04-07T19:27:16.821-07:002012-04-07T19:27:16.821-07:00Getting back to the mortgage, that was how a mortg...Getting back to the mortgage, that was how a mortgage worked, the conditions of payback on the seals had to be completed, before the owner could actually take possession. Does that make sense? If the deal was complete at the mere breaking of the 7th seal, Christ would begin to reign immediately, but Christ cannot be the reigning king until antichrist's time is fulfilled, and he is given 42 months, not less. They can't reign simultaneously. That is why I believe Christ is standing with His feet planted on the sea and land in chapter 10 right after the 6th trumpet is finished. He is claiming His property to give back to His bride. Rev. 11 confirms that the kingdoms of the world become His only at the sounding of the 7th trumpet. That said I see the Day of the Lord, when defined as the REDEMPTION of the earth being complete, as commencing technically at the 7th seal, but when defined as the actual POSSESSION and Wrath of God, not starting until the 7th trumpet when Christ's reign starts. The period in between the 7th seal and 7th trumpet is that period of time when these last conditions play out between the end of the tribulation(shown by all the martyrs on the sea of glass), which we are told is cut short of the 1260 days, and the wrath of God, which cannot yet begin, as antichrist's reign is not complete until the end of the 42 months. If God's wrath begins before the 1260 days are over, then antichrist doesn't get his full 42 months as promised, and if the tribulation goes until the 1260 days, then it is not cut short as promised and nobody would survive. The six trumpets are basically time fillers between the two (tribulation and wrath) to keep the world busy until the end, allowing the tribulation to be cut short. They won't have time to persecute and martyr Christians if they are trying to survive themselves. God had to have something to keep antichrist busy in another way than killing us, to finish out the 42 months until He takes over. Make sense?Conniehttps://www.blogger.com/profile/16624728134929059941noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-27812074613299743242012-04-07T19:26:38.707-07:002012-04-07T19:26:38.707-07:00I haven't upgraded my blog so I might have to ...I haven't upgraded my blog so I might have to post more than one answer to get all this in. <br /><br />I guess first of all my definition of the Day of the Lord might be different from other people, so I should start with that. I see the timeline of the world as being 7000 years from creation to White Throne Judgment. Just as God created a week of days, and a week of years, I see a week of millenniums. Just as the seventh day is the Sabbath or a Day sanctified unto the Lord, and the seventh year is a Sabbath year unto the Lord, I see the entire 7th millennium as a Sabbath or a Day unto or of the Lord. So my definition of the Day of the Lord is not just His wrath, it is the entire Sabbath millennium. Just as the priests cleaned the temple to purify it just prior to the Sabbath commencing, I see the wrath of God as the cleaning of the earth before the Sabbath millennium commences. <br /><br />As to whether it starts at the seventh seal or the seventh trumpet, that goes back to my understanding of what the scroll is. I understand the scroll to be the mortgage on the earth. If that is correct, as such it is redeemed when the seventh seal is broken, as there remain no more seals to break, so the earth technically reverts to its owner (Christ), but the final conditions of the redemption on that last seal (trumpets 1-6) still have to play out before physical possession can take place. The reason that the signs of the Day of the Lord occur in the 6th seal is that at the breaking of the 7th seal, the deal is complete and the land legally reverts. Thus the Day of the Lord can begin as soon as they finish. That is why the silence before the 7th seal. It is the moment of truth, so to speak. The 6th is the last seal before the reversion, so the signs have to be there in order to herald the coming Day of the Lord. There are no more seals after the seventh, thus technically the ownership of the world is being transferred when that one is opened, and the Day of the Lord (when defined as God's wrath) will immediately follow, [and here is the crux of the matter as to the difference], as soon as all the conditions in that seal have finished playing out. The difference between what I believe and pre-wrath (which I used to believe) is that I don't believe the conditions to be met are finished yet with the opening of the 6th seal. The 6th seal are signs that herald the Day of the Lord, but they aren't the start of the Day of the Lord if by definition you strictly mean God's wrath. I know people are saying that God's wrath is come in that seal, but that is people on earth saying that based on the signs and their fear. Heaven does not declare that His wrath is come until Rev. 11 at the last trumpet. Sorry if I get redundant here, I'm trying to make myself understood and I'm not sure I'm doing it well.Conniehttps://www.blogger.com/profile/16624728134929059941noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4902564489239485922.post-47502888075228440442012-04-07T13:03:15.302-07:002012-04-07T13:03:15.302-07:00I’ve examined many of your articles these past few...I’ve examined many of your articles these past few days. As someone who is used to the Pre-Wrath position, I find your timeline very similar to one the one offered by Pre-Wrath teachers and a timeline that is worth strong consideration. <br /><br />I need some clarification on the Day of the Lord from your perspective. The impression I have from reading many of your articles is that you have the Day of the Lord beginning after the last trump/Second Coming/Rapture at the end of (the second) 1260 day period, but before that there is a time period after the opening of the sixth seal when the “Day of the Lord signs” are prevalent. Do you view the time period following the opening of the sixth seal when the “Day of the Lord signs” are prevalent (maybe up to a year, two, or more depending on how quickly the great tribulation/wrath of Satan is cut short) as being officially part of the Day of the Lord or a time period that is unassociated with the Day of the Lord?<br /><br />The Pre-Wrath position generally places the official start of the Day of the Lord/Wrath of God at the opening of the seventh seal following the Rapture after the opening of the sixth seal (with the time period between the opening of the sixth seal and seventh seal being very short). The Pre-Wrath position also does not see Christians going through any part of the Day of the Lord (the Day of the Lord for the Pre-Wrtah position would include the trumpet and the vial judgments). I'm just mentioning this to give you an idea of what my understanding has been. I'm not afraid to change positions and to rewrite everything if I find a superior/more accurate position.Prophecy Proof Insightshttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08757440848152622108noreply@blogger.com